Practice Examination

Compiled by Gary Eastman, CNMT

1. The desired effect of I-131 administration for a cancerous thyroid is:

A. To block thyroid function
B. To Reduce thyroid function
C. To inhibit iodide oxidation
D. Ablation of thyroid tissue
E. Reduce the chance for hyperthyroidism

2. Adenosine is what type of pharmaceutical?

A. Beta Blocker
B. Antiarrhythmic Drug
C. Calcium Blocker
D. Vasoconstrictor
E. Vasodilator

3. Thallium 201 is a _______analog

A. Potassium
B. Calcium
C. Cesium
D. Sodium
E. Gallium

4. Captopril Renal Scans are used to assess:

A. Obstruction
B. Chronic Renal Failure
C. Renal Artery Stenosis
D. Acute Renal Failure
E. Pyleonephritis

5. Diffuse reduction in liver uptake with colloid shift to the spleen and bone marrow is seen in:

A. Hepatoma
B. Cirrhosis
C. Anemia
D. Liver Metastasis
E. Cystic Lesions


6. A Transmission Scan Refers To:

A. Use of external viewing stations
B. Placing a patient distant from a detector
C. Using a radionuclide as an external source
D. Combination X-Ray and radionuclide scan
E. A Dynamic list mode acquisition

7. Increased Gallium 67 Uptake is Typically Found In:

A. Neoplasms
B. Abscesses
C. Surgical Wounds
D. Lactating Breasts
E. All of the above

8. The number of Tc-99m MAA particles may need to be adjusted in patients with:

A. Severe Pulmonary Hypertension
B. History of Myocardial Infarction
C. Aortic Stenosis
D. Cirrhosis
E. Renal Disease

9. Placing a source with high activity near a scintillation detector may result in:

A. Excessive Gain
B. High Voltage Discharge
C. High Information Density
D. Dead Time Counting Loss
E. Scintillation Crystal Damage

10. Dose calibrators are usually which type of detectors?

A. NaI Detectors
B. Geiger Counters
C. Ionization Chambers
D. Solid State Detectors
E. Multi-Crystal Detectors



11. Indium 111 DTPA is administered________ for Cisternography

A. Orally
B. Intramuscularly
C. Intrathecally
D. Intravenously
E. Subcutaneously

12. Which of the following is not pertinent history prior to performing a Hepatobiliary Scan:

A. Allergy to Iodine
B. Patient is taking Morphine for pain
C. Patient’s latest meal was 1 hour ago
D. Patient has not eaten in 2 Days.
E. All are pertinent

13. A 256x256 image acquired in byte mode will require how many bytes of memory

A. 256
B. 512
C. 25,600
D. 52,245
E. 65,536

14. What is the NRC Limit of Aluminum Ion Concentration in Tc04-

A. 0.15 ug/ml
B. 1.0 ug/ml
C. 10 ug/ml
D. 100 ug/ml
E. None of the Above

15. The radionuclidic purity of a radioisotope can be determined using:

A. Gamma Spectroscopy
B. Paper Chromatography
C. Ion Exchange Chromatography
D. Measuring Radiation Intensity
E. A Dose Calibrator


16. Chromatography procedures in Nuc. Med. Are used to Determine:

A. Radionuclidic Purity
B. Radiopharmaceutical sterility
C. Radiochemical Purity
D. Radioactive Decay
E. Molybdenum Contamination

17. Compared to Tc-99m, Mo-99 has

A. A shorter half-life
B. Lower energy gamma rays
C. More nucleons in the nucleus
D. A stronger affinity for alumina
E. Less beta ray emission

18. How many half-lives must you decay in storage radioactive material before disposal

A. 1
B. 10
C. 20
D. 100
E. 1000

19. The Radiopharmaceutical of choice for a Salivary Gland Study is:

A. Tc-99m DTPA
B. Tc-99m Pertechnetate
C. Tc-99m MDP
D. Tc-99m Glucoheptonate
E. Tc-99m Tetrofosmin

20. An Injection of Tc04- Would Have the Greatest Concentration in:

A. The Bowel
B. The Kidneys
C. The Myocardium
D. The Gastric Mucosa
E. Kuppfer Cells

21. In an abnormal gastroesophageal reflux scan, activity may be seen in:

A. Stomach
B. Kidneys
C. Duodenum
D. Colon
E. Lungs

22. Which Renal Imaging Agent is Cleared Virtually 100% by Glomerular Filtration

A. DMSA
B. DTPA
C. MAG3
D. Glucoheptonate
E. I-131 Hippurate

23. In-111 Octreotide is used to detect which type of tumors?

A. Colon
B. Skeletal
C. Neoroendocrine
D. Ovarian
E. Pulmonary

24. When Performing a Lung Ventilation Study Utilizing Xe-133, the room should have positive Pressure (True or False)

25. If a Radionuclide Decays by Electron Capture, a______ will also be emitted

A. Positron
B. Annihilation Photon
C. Characteristic X-Ray
D. Negatron
E. Proton

26. Dedicated PET scanners use _______ for the detector:

A. Ionization Chamber
B. Geiger-Mueller Counter
C. BGO (Bismuth Germanate)
D. Pocket Dosimeter
E. NaI


27. The Primary Function of the Collimator is to Eliminate:

A. Obliquely entering gamma rays
B. Dead-time losses
C. Non-uniformity
D. Compton scattered radiation
E. All of the above

28. Specific Activity is the:

A. Specific Organ of Radiopharmaceutical Uptake
B. Activity of isotope after 10 Half-lives
C. Activity required for a Procedure
D. Amount of Radioactivity per unit mass
E. Activity needed to create LD 50/30

29. Which Procedure Does Not Require a Collimator:

A. Positron Emission Tomography
B. Anger Camera Scintigraphy
C. Triple Head Tomography
D. Extrinsic Uniformity Calibration
E. Single Photon Emission Tomography

30. According to NRC Part 20: the Maximum exposure rate in an Uncontrolled area is:

A. 25 mr/hr
B. 50 mr/hr
C. 5 mr/hr
D. 2 mr/hr
E. 0.2 mr/hr

31. Exchange of Gasses Between Air in the Lungs and the Blood Occurs in the:

A. Alveoli
B. Bronchi
C. Trachea
D. Esophagus
E. None of the Above


32. What is the Gamma Ray Energy of Sr-89

A. 210 Kev
B. 189 Kev
C. 375 Kev
D. 445 Kev
E. None of the Above

33. What is the Clinical Use of Sm-153

A. Therapy for Polycythemia Vera
B. Palliative Therapy for Bone Metastasis
C. Bone Imaging
D. Renal Imaging
E. Therapy for Lymphoma

34. What Radiopharmaceutical is used for the treatment of Polycythemia Vera:

A. Sr-89 Metastron
B. I-131 Hippuran
C. P-32 Sodium Phosphate
D. P-32 Sodium Chromate
E. In-111 Oncoscint

35. What are the qualities of Tc-MAA and Tc-SC which do not allow testing for RH-Tc

A. Particulate
B. Pyrogenic
C. Carcinogenic
D. Unstable
E. Uncontrollable

36. In a prepared radiopharmaceutical kit, which of the following is Not a form Tc-99m present:

A. Bound Radiopharmaceutical
B. Unbound (Free) Tc04-
C. Molybdenum bound Tc-99m
D. Hydrolyzed Reduced Tc-99m
E. All of these may be present


37. A MAG3 Renal Scan with Lasix (Furosemide) is used to Diagnose:

A. Renal Vascular Hypertension
B. Renal Tumors
C. Obstructive Uropathy
D. Transplant Rejection
E. Hydronephrosis

38. What are the radiation exposure limits of a Yellow III labeled box at the surface and 3 ft, respectively? 

A. 200 mr/hr and 10 mr/hr
B. 200 mr/hr and 50 mr/hr
C. 50 mr/hr and 10 mr/hr
D. 10 mr/hr and 2 mr/hr
E. There is no limit

39. In Tl-201 imaging, What is the optimal delay time between stress and rest images

A. Immediate 
B. 30 - 60 Minutes
C. 1 - 2 Hours
D. 3 - 4 Hours
E. 6 - 8 Hours

40. What is the recommended Testing Frequency on a dose Calibrator for Accuracy:

A. Annually and after repair
B. Semi-Annually and after repair
C. At Installation and after repair
D. Daily and after repair
E. Quarterly and after repair

41. What is the cause of multiple “hot-spots” in a Tc-99m MAA Perfusion Lung Scan:

A. Bolus Injection
B. Improper needle gauge
C. Free Tc04-
D. Blood mixing with the MAA
E. Normal variant


42. A dose of radiation which kills 50% of an exposed population in 30 days is:

A. LET 50
B. LD 50/30
C. LD 30/50
D. RBE 50/30
E. None of the Above

43. What is the Half-life and Energy of I 123?

A. 60 Days and 122 Kev
B. 13 Hours and 159 Kev
C. 8 Days and 364 Kev
D. 60 Days and 35 Kev
E. 13 Hours and 247 Kev.

44. What is the recommended Testing Frequency of a Dose Calibrator for Constancy:

A. Daily
B. Weekly
C. Monthly
D. Quarterly
E. Annually

45. What is the Radiopharmaceutical of Choice for Adrenal Medullary Imaging:

A. I-131/I-123 NaI
B. I-131/I-123 MIBG
C. I-131/I-123 NP-59
D. All Can Be Used

46. Why Do We Use Cs-137 for Constancy Testing of our Dose Calibrator:

A. Because it is Stable
B. Because it has Multiple Energies
C. Because it has a Long Half-Life
D. Because it has a Low Energy Gamma
E. All of The Above

47. Which Fourier Functional Image Represents a Pixel’s Change in Counts Over Time:

A. Constancy
B. Phase
C. Relativity
D. Amplitude
E. Coincidence
48. What Radiopharmaceutical is used for “hot-spot” myocardial imaging:

A. Tc-99m MDP
B. Tc-99m PYP
C. Tc-99m Sestamibi
D. Tc-99m Tetrofosmin
E. Tl 201

49. If IV Contrast is given for a CT Scan, What Effect will this have on Thyroid Imaging?

A. No Effect
B. Decreased Imaging Time
C. Decreased Iodine Uptake
D. Increased Iodine Uptake
E. Decreased Background

50. Inflammation of the Stomach is called:

A. Mucosa
B. Carcinoma
C. Gastritis
D. Meckels Diverticulum
E. GI Bleed

51. Which of the Following is Not Accelerated by a Cyclotron:

A. Electrons
B. Protons
C. Neutrons
D. Alpha particles
E. All can be Accelerated

52. Fourier Phase Images of The Heart Represent:

A. Changes in Amplitude
B. Changes in Rhythm
C. Changes in Synchronization
D. Ischemic Changes
E. Myocardial Infarction


53. What is the size of MAA Particles:

A. 100 - 200 microns
B. 10 - 20 microns
C. 10 - 90 microns
D. 1 - 10 microns
E. 100 - 900 microns

54. Separate Rest and Stress Injections are Required in Tc-MIBI Imaging Because of

A. Negligible Redistribution 
B. Decreased Imaging Times are Required
C. Passive Distribution of Tracer
D. Increased Liver Uptake after Injection
E. A & C

55. Areas in which radiopharmaceuticals requiring a written directive are used must be surveyed:

A. Daily
B. Weekly
C. Monthly
D. Quarterly
E. No Survey Required

56. The Stress Testing Technique of Choice for Evaluation of Coronary Flow Reserve is:
A. Exercise
B. Dipyridamole
C. Adenosine
D. Persantine
E. All are Equally Good

57. What Effect Does Captopril Have

A. Constricts the Sphincter of Oddi
B. ACE inhibitor
C. Diuretic
D. Vasodilator
E. Increases Blood Pressure


58. What is the Occupational Limit (NRC) for radiation dose to the eyes:

A. 2 mrem
B. 20 mrem
C. 10 Rem
D. 15 Rem
C. 5 Rem

59. Which of the following do not ionize atoms?

A. Electrons
B. Positrons
C. Gamma rays
D. X-rays
E. All are ionizing


60. Which of the Following is Not an Advantage of Labeled Leukocyte Imaging over Ga-67

A. GI tract accumulation
B. Decreased Radiation Exposure
C. Cost
D. Availability
E. Better Imaging Characteristics

61. Linearity of a Dose Calibrator should be tested between what levels of Activity

A. Highest Activity Used and 30 uCi
B. Highest Activity Used and 10 uCi
C. 30 uCi - 30 mCi
D. 1 uCi - 100 mCi
E. Highest Activity used and 100 uCi

62. Captopril Causes a/an:

A. Increase in Blood Pressure
B. Decrease in Blood Pressure
C. Increase in Heart Rate
D. Increase in Urine Production
E. None of the Above


63. Mo-99/Tc-99m Generators are in ______Equilibrium

A. Ischemic
B. Secular
C. Transient
D. Stable
E. Transmutational

64. What is the Largest Solid Organ In the Body:

A. Lungs
B. Liver
C. Spleen
D. Stomach
E. Gallbladder

65. What is the Testing Frequency for Gamma Camera Spatial Resolution and Linearity?

A. Daily
B. Weekly
C. Monthly
D. Quarterly
E. Semi-Annually

66. A Flood Correction For SPECT Uniformity in 64x64 matrix should have _____counts

A. 500K
B. 1 Million
C. 10 Million
D. 30 Million
E. 100 Million

67. What is the NRC Limit of Mo-99 in a Tc-99m Eluate (at time of administration):

A. 0.04 uCi Mo-99 per mCi Tc-99m
B. 0.07 uCi Mo-99 per mCi Tc-99m
C. 0.10 uCi Mo-99 per mCi Tc-99m
D. 0.15 uCi Mo-99 per mCi Tc-99m
E. 0.25 uCi Mo-99 per mCi Tc-99m


68. What Does CFOV refer to:

A. Cardiac Function
B. Frequency Cutoff 
C. Coronary Volume
D. Center of NaI crystal
E. Ventricular Ejection Fraction

69. Which of the Following is Suitable for Blood Pool Imaging:

A. Tc-99m Sulfur Colloid
B. Tc-99m MAA
C. Tc-99m Tagged Red Blood Cells
D. Tc-99m DTPA
E. Tc-99m Labeled Leukocytes

70. A pinhole collimator is valuable for Imaging:

A. Large, Flat Organs (e.g. Liver)
B. Large, Compact Organs (e.g. Brain)
C. Small Organs (e.g. Thyroid)
D. The Skeletal System
E. All of the Above

71. Which of the Following describes the Relationship between RBE and LET:

A. Directly Proportional
B. Inversely Proportional
C. Bell Shaped
D. Sigmoid

72. The Hands of a Technologist Should be Monitored by a:

A. Pocket Dosimeter
B. A TLD
C. A Film Badge
D. An Ionization Chamber

73. According to the Inverse Square Law, Doubling the Distance from a source:

A. Decrease Exposure 2 Times
B. Decreases Exposure 4 Times
C. Decreases Exposure 8 Times
D. Decreases Exposure 16 Times


74. Boiling a Sulfur Colloid Preparation too Long Results in:

A. Particles which are too small
B. Particles which are too large
C. Chemically Unstable Particles
D. Unsterile Particles
E. Unreduced Tc04-

75. In General, labeling with Tc-99m requires:

A. Alkaline pH
B. Neutral Solution
C. Oxidation
D. Reduction or an acid pH
E. Electron Capture

76. Which Radiopharmaceutical Localizes by Active Transport:

A. Tc-99m MAA in Lungs
B. Tc-99m MDP in Bones
C. I-131 Uptake in the Thyroid
D. Tc-99m SC in the RES System
E. None of the Above

77. Tc-99m Mertiatide (MAG3) is cleared by:

A. Glomerular Filtration
B. Tubular Secretion 
C. Both
D. Neither

78. Which of the Following is not an Indication for Performing a HMPAO Brain Scan:

A. CVA
B. Alzheimer’s Disease
C. Epileptic Seizures
D. Hydrocephalus
E. Substance Abuse

79. Meckel’s Diverticulum Imaging is Performed with:

A. I 131 Rose Bengal
B. Tl 201 Chloride
C. Tc-99m Pertechnetate
D. Tc-99m Pyrophosphate
E. Tc-99m Labeled RBC
80. In Compton Effect, the Incident Photon:

A. Loses some of its initial energy
B. Is absorbed by an atom
C. Produces two opposite charged particles
D. Reduces the atomic Number of an atom

81. Isobars have similar numbers of:

A. Electrons
B. Protons
C. Neutrons
D. Nucleons

82. How Many Microliters are in one Nanoliter?

A. 1000
B. 103
C. 0.001
D. 10-4


83. A Nanogram is equal to a:

A. Picogram
B. Millimicrogram
C. Microgram
D. None of the Above

84. Half Value Layer is Unrelated to:

A. Density
B. Attenuation Coefficients
C. Atomic Number
D. Neutron Number


85. Another term for a Single Channel Analyzer is:

A. Scaler
B. Rate Meter
C. Geiger Counter
D. Energy Discriminator
E. Post-Amplifier

86. A Flood Field is used to Determine:

A. Camera Nonlinearity
B. Camera Nonuniformity
C. Camera Dead Time
D. Spatial Resolution

87. Geiger Muller Counters have no:

A. Energy Window
B. Dead Time 
C. Sensitivity to Photons
D. Sensitivity to Electrons

88. Fan-Beam Collimators are most appropriate for:

A. MUGA Scans
B. SPECT cardiac Scans
C. SPECT Brain Scans
D. Thyroid Scans

89. The Adrenal Glands are:

A. Superior to the Kidneys
B. Lateral to the Kidneys
C. Medial to the Kidneys
D. Inferior to the Kidneys

90. A Term Not Associated with sine waves is:

A. Amplitude
B. Contour
C. Phase
D. Frequency

91. A_______study requires the most computer storage

A. Gated SPECT
B. Whole Body Scan
C. MUGA
D. Ventilation/Perfusion Lung Scan



92. At 48 - 72 Hours, Ga-67 Uptake will be greatest in Which Organ

A. Kidney
B. Spleen
C. Skeleton
D. Lung
E. Liver

93. Which of the Following is an Indication for Performing a Tc-99m MDP Bone Scan:

A. Bone Metastasis
B. Osteomyelitis
C. Trauma
D. Osteonecrosis
E. All Of The Above

94. I f you add 100 uCi to 1000 ml, then pipette out 1 ml of the solution, what is the activity?

A. 0.1 uCi
B. 1.0 uCi
C. 10.0 uCi
D. 20.0 uCi

95. A vial of MDP contains 180 mCi in 5 ml. Approx.What volume is required for 25 mCi?

A. 0.5 ml
B. 0.7 ml
C. 0.9 ml
D. 1.2 ml

96. A vial of Tc-MAA has 45 mCi @ 8 AM. What is the approx. activity @ 12 PM ?

A. 36 mCi
B. 28 mCi
C. 25 mCi
D. 18 mCi
E. 10 mCi


97. If you have 2590 mCi Tc-99m and a Moly/Tc-99m ratio of .003, how many uCi Mo-99 are in the solution 

A. 3.99 uCi
B. 5.54 uCi
C. 7.77 uCi
D. 10.35 uCi
E. None of the Above

98. On July 24, a solution of I-131 contains 100 uCi. What was the activity on July 1 ?

A. 200 uCi
B. 300 uCi
C. 400 uCi
D. 600 uCi
E. 800 uCi

99. What is allowable radiation exposure to a fetus of a declared pregnant radiation worker?

A. 2 mrem/hr.
B. 100 mrem/yr.
C. 50 mrem over the gestation period
D. 500 mrem over the gestation period
E. 5000 mrem

100. Which of the following constitutes a reportable event?

A. 100 mCi Tc04- given to the wrong pt.
B. 11.5 mCi I-131 given, 10 mCi ordered.
C. 20 mCi I-131 given, 10 mCi ordered.
D. 4 mCi Sr 89 given, no written directive.
E. C & D

101. Which of the following radiopharmaceuticals is best shielded by Lucite?

A. Tc-99m
B. Ga-67
C. Sr-89
D. In-111
E. All should be shielded in lead


102. Given the following elution; 1500 mCi Tc-99m, 30 uCi Mo-99 @ 8 A.M. Is eluate still usable @ 6 P.M on the same day?

103. When performing a Tc-99m generator elution, what is the cause of no bubbles seen in the saline vial when elution is started?

A. Generator is expired
B. Generator not eluted within 24 hours
C. Evacuated vial has no vacuum 
D. Generator was eluted within 4 hours
E. None of the above

104. If upon elution of a Tc-99m generator your Mo-99/Tc-99m ratio is .185 what should you do

A. Re-elute the generator.
B. Cancel all the patients for that day.
C. Check Moly canister for contamination.
D. Assure proper dose calibrator operation.
E. C & D

105. “bulls eye artifacts” in tomographic slices are the result of?

A. Improper collimator
B. Gamma camera non-uniformity
C. Patient movement
D. Improper speed of rotation
E. Improper center of rotation calibration

106. Which of the following can be counted in a scintillation well counter?

A. 0.06 uCi H-3
B. 0.6 mCi Tc-99m
C. 0.5 uCi I-131
D. 0.1 uCi C-14
E. All of the above

107. Which % uniformity is usually the largest?

A. UFOV integral
B. CFOV integral
C. UFOV differential
D. CFOV differential


108. An activity of 11.1 x 107 becquerels is equivalent to ?

A. 3 mCi
B. 3 uCi
C. 3 Ci
D. 300 mrem
E. None of the Above

109. Which of the following dose calibrator tests is performed least frequently?

A. Geometry
B. Linearity
C. Constancy
D. Accuracy

110. To obtain a flood field using a point source, you must?

A. Remove the collimator
B. Widen the energy window
C. Decrease the CRT intensity
D. All of the above

111. The biologically reactive species formed during radiolysis of water are thought to be?

A. Oxygen and Hydrogen
B. The hydrogen and hydroxyl free radical
C. The heavy water molecule
D. All of the above

112. What labeling is required for a radioactive package reading 3.5 mr/hr at 1 meter and 95 mr/hr at the surface?

A. White I
B. Yellow II
C. Yellow III and Transportation Index 3.5
D. Yellow IV and Transportation Index 95

113. An area should be treated as contaminated if the survey meter indicates:

A. 0.01 mrem/hr at 2 cm.
B. 0.1 mrem/hr at 2 cm.
C. 0.1 mrem/hr at 1 meter
D. None of these is correct


114. The FDA classifies all drugs as:

A. Investigational New Drugs (IND)
B. New Drugs (NDA)
C. Either A or B
D. Neither A or B

115. The Roentgen applies to all except:

A. 2.2 MeV x-rays in air
B. 140 KeV gamma rays
C. 1.5 MeV betas in air
D. 1.0 MeV Photons

116. What is the maximum amount of Mo-99 which could be injected in a 25 mCi MDP dose?

A. 0.15 uCi
B. 1.5 uCi
C. 3.75 uCi
D. 5.05 uCi

117. Radiopharmaceuticals requiring refrigeration should be stored at what temp. range?

A. -10 to -20 C
B. -10 to 2 C
C. 2 to 8 C
D. 8 to 15 C

118. Which of the following radiopharmaeuticals is not biodistributed via compartmental localization?

A. Sulfur Colloid for L/S imaging
B. Tagged RBC’s for MUGA studies
C. In-111 DTPA for Cisternography
D. All of the Above

119. Approximately what % of the injected dose of Tc-99m MDP is concentrated in the bones?

A. 10 %
B. 20%
C. 50%
D. 80%

120. During a Myocardial Perfusion study, the radiopharmaceutical is administered as:

A. An Infusion Injection
B. A Bolus Injection
C. An Oral Medication
D. An Intrathecal Injection

121. Recurrent urinary tract infections and vesicoureteral reflux are indications for:

A. Cisternography
B. Cystograms
C. Captopril Renal Imaging
D. Lasix Renal Imaging

122. To visualize myocardial infarction using Tc-99m PYP, how long after administration should imaging be performed?

A. Immediately
B. 24 - 48 Hours
C. 3 - 4 Hours
D. 3 - 4 Days

123. Selection of acquisition parameters requires consideration of:

A. Activity Administered
B. Time after Radiopharmaceutical Administration
C. Energy of the Isotope
D. Patient’s ability to remain still
E. All of the Above

124. The term “nuclide” refers to:

A. Any radioactive nucleus.
B. Any radioactive atom.
C. An atom containing # of protons and neutrons.
D. The atomic number of the nucleus.

125. The radiation emanating from an x-ray tube is mainly:

A. Characteristic x- rays
B. Electrons
C. Bremsstrahlung Radiation
D. Unstable Gamma Rays



126. The energy released as a result of an annihilation reaction is in the form of?

A. A single Photon
B. Two photons @ 180 degrees opposite.
C. Two particles having opposite charges.
D. Two particles having identical charges. 

127. Which of the following represents the fraction of photons interacting in a specific thickness of material:

A. LET
B. Mrem
C. Range
D. Attenuation Coefficient

128. How long is a Licensee required to keep Mo-99 records?

A. One Year
B. Three Years
C. Five Years
D. Ten Years
E. Until License is no longer in force.

129. Which of the following Dose Calibrator Tests Require Records being Retained Beyond 3 yrs

A. Constancy
B. Linearity
C. Geometry
D. Accuracy
E. None of the above

130. During a room survey, a target level is exceeded. Immediate action required is

A. Clean up the contaminated site.
B. Contact the Radiation Safety Officer
C. Contact the NRC.
D. Evacuate the Area.

131. Which of the following Isotopes has only one Gamma Energy?

A. I-125
B. Ga-67
C. In-111
D. Tl-201
E. All have only one Energy
132. Which of the following stress studies is affected by caffeine consumption?

A. Treadmill Exercise
B. Persantine Pharmacological Stress
C. Adenosine Pharmacological Stress
D. Dobutamine Pharmacological Stress
E. B,C and D only

133. At what % of allowable limits do employees require film badges?

A. 5 %
B. 10 %
C. 25 %
D. 50 %

134. In Hepatobiliary Imaging, if the bowel is visualized but not the Gallbladder, what drug can be administered?

A. CCK
B. Lasix
C. Morphine
D. Captopril

135. There is 30 mm between two points that are 6 pixels apart. What is the pixel size?

A. 1 mm.
B. 5 mm
C. 10 mm
D. 30 mm.

136. We have 50 mCi in 10 ml, and we want a solution Of 50 uCi/ml. How much water needs to be added to this solution?

A. 1090 ml.
B. 90 ml.
C. 990 ml.
D. 490 ml.

137. When a sample is counted in a well counter, the count rate is not affected by?

A. Sample Volume
B. Molecular Structure
C. High Voltage Setting
D. Gain
E. Energy Window

138. The purpose of a tourniquet when performing venipuncture is to increase:

A. Blood Flow
B. Venous Pressure
C. Arterial Pressure
D. Arterial and Venous Pressure

139. Cerebral Spinal Fluid normally flows within the:

A. Venous Sinuses
B. Subarachnoid Space
C. Subdural Space
D. Blood Brain Barrier

140. Angiotensin causes a decrease in Blood Pressure?

A. True
B. False

141. Which of the following has the smallest memory capacity?

A. Magnetic Tape Cartridge 
B. Diskette
C. Hard Drive
D. Optical Disk

142. At what level does Lasix affect Urine Production?

A. Glomerular Bed
B. Renal Tubules
C. Loop of Henle
D. Renal Pelvis


143. If a scan is ordered incorrectly by a nuc. med. physician, what should a technologist do?

A. Perform the scan the tech. Feels is correct.
B. Notify the physician of the error.
E. Do the scan that was ordered by the nuc. med. physician.
F. Notify the NRC.


144. What level of Radiation requires the posting of a “Caution Radiation Area” sign?

A. Any area where radioactive materials are used or stored. 
B. Any accessible area where exposure of 0.005 rem. in 1 hour @ 30 cm is possible.
C. Any accessible area where exposure to 0.1 rem in 1 hour @ 30 cm is possible.

145. What is the record keeping requirements for personnel radiation exposure records?

A. One Year
B. Three Years
C. Five Years
D. Ten Years
E. Until license is no longer in force.

146. What is the definition of the “critical organ”?

A. The organ of interest on a specific imaging study.
B. The organ which receives the greatest radiation exposure.
C. The organ which can be critically affected by the wrong radiopharmaceutical.

147. Focal areas of increased uptake in a linear pattern on 4 adjacent ribs on a bone scan would represent?

A. Metastatic disease from prostate cancer?
B. Trauma to the chest wall?
C. Localized Osteoporosis?
D. Normal breast uptake?
E. Paget

148. Which of the following patterns suggests myocardial ischemia ?
A. + Rest MIBI, + Stress MIBI
B. + Rest MIBI, - Stress Tl-201
C. - Rest MIBI, - Stress MIBI
D. + Rest Tl-201, + Stress MIBI
E. - Rest Tl-201, + Stress Tl-201

149. According to NRC regulations, the annual occupational dose limit to the skin and extremities is?

A. 0.1 rem
B. 5 rem
C. 15 rem
D. 50 rem
E. 500 rem

150. What is the testing frequency for Mo-99 (NRC Regulations)

A. Once per week
B. Once per day
C. Upon the first elution of generator
D. Upon each elution of the generator

151. Tracer uptake is seen in the skeleton, stomach, thyroid, and salivary glands. This means?

A. Pt. imaged too soon after injection
B. Radiopharmaceutical has excess free Tc04-
C. Patient has compromised renal function
D. Incorrect radiopharmaceutical was administered

152. The action of ACD soln. in labeling RBC’s is as?

A. a cell preservative
B. a pH stabilizer
C. a reducing agent
D. an oxidizing agent
E. an anticoagulant

153. Reports of medical events sent to the NRC must contain all of the following except?

A. Whether pt or guardian was informed
B. A description of the event
C. The referring physician’s name
D. The patient’s name

154. Patient dose records must be maintained for how long?

A. 3 years
B. 5 years
C. 10 years
D. Indefinitely

155. Technologists who elute Mo-99/Tc-99m generators should be monitored with?

A. A film badge
B. A pocket dosimeter
C. A TLD (Ring Badge)
D. A & B
E. A & C

156. Which of the following Tc-99m agents is preferred for GI bleed scans

A. Human Serum Albumin
B. Mebrofenin
C. MAG3
D. Red Blood Cells
E. Sulfur Colloid

157. A Parathyroid Adenoma will concentrate which of the following?

A. I-123 Sodium Iodide
B. Tc-99m Tc04-
C. Tc-99m Sestamibi
D. Tc-99m Tc04- or Sestamibi

158. Areas of prolonged retention of Xe-133 in the lungs are associated with?

A. Reduced trapping in the lung
B. Obstructive lung disease
C. Pulmonary embolism
D. Bacterial pneumonia
E. Septal penetration

159. Ring or “Bulls-Eye” artifacts are caused by?

A. Uncorrected flood field non-uniformities
B. Inadequate statistics
C. Insufficient angular sampling
D. Inappropriate filtering
E. Insufficient linear sampling

160. In a thyroid uptake; If the neck is counted @ 5 cm, and the std. Is counted at 20 cm.

A. The results will be normal
B. The results will be unaffected
C. The results will be erroneously low
D. The results will be erroneously high

161. Epididymitis and testicular torsion are differentiated using which radiopharmaceutical?

A. Tc-99m pertechnetate
B. Tc-99m RBC’s
C. Tc-99m disofenin
D. I-131 Iodohippurate
162. Which Federal Regulation specifies occupational radiation dose limits

A. 10 USC 19
B. 10 CFR Part 20
C. 10 CFR Part 35
D. 10 CFR Part 71
E. AEC act of 1954

163. The purpose of using acetazolamide in brain imaging is to?

A. Tranquilize the patient
B. Differentiate infarct from ischemic areas
C. Localize seizure locations
D. Localize brain tumors

164. An unrestricted area is one in which a person would receive a radiation dose less than:

A. 2 mrem per hour
B. 5 mrem per hour
C. 10 mrem per hour
D. 20 mrem per hour
E. 50 mrem per hour

165. A well counter is set to collect 10K cts or stop after 5 minutes. If counter stops @ 2 min what is the count rate (in cpm)

A. 2,000
B. 5,000
C. 10,000
D. 20,000
E. 200,000

166. A patient who slumps over in the chair during an injection most likely has experienced:

A. Shock
B. Syncope
C. Anaphylaxis
D. Parasthesia
E. A Seizure


167. All of the following procedures may be performed with Tc-99m sulfur colloid except:

A. Gastric emptying study
B. GI reflux study
C. GI Bleed study
D. Meckels diverticulum study

168. Sr-89 or Sm-153 can be used to treat which of the following conditions:

A. Metastatic Bone Pain
B. Polycythemia Vera
C. Rheumatoid arthritis
D. Malignant Effusions

169. A vial of PYP has 15.4 mg SnPYP in 3 ml of saline. Standard dose is 0.2 mg/kg. What volume should be used for a 65 kg. Adult:

A. 2.2
B. 2.3
C. 2.5
D. 2.7

170. If 175 mR/hr were measured @ 1 ft. What would be the exposure rate @ 5 ft?

A. 4 mR/hr
B. 7 mR/hr
C. 17 mR/hr
D. 20 mR/hr

171. The administration of Tc-99m ECD includes which of the following:

A. A intrathecal injection
B. Infusion at peak exercise
C. The use of dual tourniquets
D. Minimizing environmental stimuli



Miscellaneous Recent NMTCB Exam Questions
Total allowable dose to a fetus during gestation period.
Know limits for radioactive labels; White I, Yellow II and Yellow III.
Extensive concentration and decay problems.
Infection control principles
Board Exam Questions cont.
Recordable vs. Reportable events.
Radiopharmaceutical Storage requirements.
Proper Injection Technique for a Lung Scan. (Pt. Supine, No blood in the syringe).
Bone Scan Images: Interpretations
Renal Glomerular secretion vs. Tubular Secretion.
Board Exam Questions cont.
CPR: How many breaths to compressions.
Use of CCK vs. Morphine.
Best use of Lucite shielding; Beta emitters.
Flood Uniformity problems; Causes and Solutions.
Mo-99/Tc-99m Generator Questions. Operation and Problem Solving.
Board Exam Questions cont.
Lung Scan Images: Interpretation, and Artifact recognition.
Inverse Square Law.
Proper use of Radioactive Room Signage.
Gastric Empty: normal clearance time.
Proper labeling of images and recognition of ant. vs. post. Images etc.
Board Exam Questions cont.
Calculate Cardiac Output.
Record Keeping Requirements.
RBC Survival Studies.
Thyroid Image with Necklace Artifact.
Thin Layer Chromatography Questions.
Limits on disposal of radioactive human waste. (No limits).
Board Exam Questions cont.
Decay in storage questions.
Cisternography Infiltration question.
Radiopharmaceutical used for Polycythemia Vera.
Collimator Questions. High Resolution, Fan Beam, Medium/High Energy etc.
Effect of Aminophylline on cardiac stress.
Board Exam Questions cont.
Myocardial Perfusion Images, and causes of artifacts; Diaphragm, arrhythmias, etc.
Testicular Scans and the proper use of shielding around the thighs, and under scrotum.
Effect of Zoom on image resolution.
Bilirubin; normal values, and effect on hepatobiliary imaging.
Board Exam Questions cont.
Artifacts from camera, film processing, or the patient?
In-vitro RBC labeling principles.
Dose calibrator testing procedures.
Annual radiation exposure limits.
Interpretation of EKG strips.
Half value layer, LET, RBE, etc.